Q: What is 30cm converted to inches?

The correct answer is: $11.811023622\text{ in}$ Explanation To convert centimeters to inches use the exact relation $1\text{ in}=2.54\text{ cm}$. Divide the length in cm by 2.54 to get inches. Steps: Relation: $1\text{ in}=2.54\text{ cm}$ Convert: $30\text{ cm}\times\frac{1\text{ in}}{2.54\text{ cm}}=\frac{30}{2.54}\text{ in}$ Compute: $$\frac{30}{2.54}\approx11.811023622\text{ in}$$ Therefore, $30\text{ cm}\approx11.81\text{ in}$ (rounded to two decimal places).

Q: How Many Inches Are in 5 Feet?

The correct answer is: $60\text{ in}$ Explanation One foot equals 12 inches, so to convert feet to inches you multiply by 12. Steps: First step: $$1\text{ ft} = 12\text{ in}$$ Second step: $$5\text{ ft}\times 12\frac{\text{in}}{\text{ft}} = 60\text{ in}$$ Final step: $$5\text{ ft} = 60\text{ in}$$ Therefore, 5 feet equals 60 inches.

Q: How many feet are in 72 inches?

The correct answer is:$6\text{ ft}$ Explanation We convert inches to feet using the fact that 1 foot equals 12 inches. Divide the total inches by 12 to get feet. Steps: First step: $$1\text{ ft} = 12\text{ in}$$ Second step: $$\frac{72\text{ in}}{12\text{ in/ft}} = 6\text{ ft}$$ Final step: Therefore, $72$ inches equals $6$ feet.

Q: 750 ml is how many liters?

The correct answer is: $0.75\text{ L}$ Explanation You convert milliliters to liters knowing that $1\text{ L} = 1000\text{ mL}$. Divide the milliliters by 1000 to get liters. Steps: Relationship: $1\text{ L} = 1000\text{ mL}$ Convert: $$\frac{750}{1000} = 0.75$$ Include units: $0.75\text{ L}$ Therefore, 750 mL equals $0.75\text{ L}$.

Q: Where is 10 mm on a ruler in inches?

The correct answer is: $0.3937\text{ in}$ Explanation Convert using $1\text{ in}=25.4\text{ mm}$. Steps: Relationship: $$1\text{ in}=25.4\text{ mm}$$ Convert: $$10\text{ mm}=\frac{10}{25.4}\text{ in}=0.3937007874\text{ in}$$ Rounded for typical use: $$\approx0.394\text{ in}$$ Therefore, 10 mm is about 0.394 inches — on a standard inch ruler it falls just past the 3/8" mark (3/8" = $0.375\text{ in}=9.525\text{ mm}$).

Q: How many cups are in a pint?

The correct answer is: 2 cups (US pint). Explanation $1\text{ cup}=8\text{ fl oz}$. $1\text{ (US) pint}=16\text{ fl oz}$. Therefore $16\div8=2$, so $1\text{ (US) pint}=2\text{ cups}$. Note: An Imperial (UK) pint is larger — about $568.26\text{ mL}$ — which is roughly $568.26\div236.588\approx2.4$ US cups. For most recipes in the U.S., use the US conversion (2 cups = 1 pint).

Question

What is 30cm converted to inches?

Accepted Answer

The correct answer is: $11.811023622	ext{ in}$

Explanation

To convert centimeters to inches use the exact relation $1	ext{ in}=2.54	ext{ cm}$. Divide the length in cm by 2.54 to get inches.

Steps:

Relation: $1	ext{ in}=2.54	ext{ cm}$
Convert: $30	ext{ cm}	imes\frac{1	ext{ in}}{2.54	ext{ cm}}=\frac{30}{2.54}	ext{ in}$
Compute: $$\frac{30}{2.54}\approx11.811023622	ext{ in}$$

Therefore, $30	ext{ cm}\approx11.81	ext{ in}$ (rounded to two decimal places).